The Englisce Name Jesus is a Myth, Thanks to the Wicked Bible!
The name “Jesus” is simply a combination/fabrication of the Aramaic YeShuWA, and Joshua comes from the Greek translation of the savours true name ABaRIY/Hebrew name (YaHuWShuWA) יְהוֹשׁוּעַ Yĕhowshuwa Strong’s H3091. When the Greeks translated the saviours name they claim its IESOUS, Interestingly enough, ALL the letters in the name IESOUS is in the English language and can be pronounced with no problem, so WHY did they need to replace the letter “I” with a “J”, remove the “O” and translate IESOUS further down to Jesus? Please note the similarity between the Greek name IESOUS and pagan deity name ZEUS. [https://warriorsoftheruwach.com/the-letter-j]
Today we see Yĕhowshuwa down from 10 (Hebrew) letters to six (Greek) letters in the translations Ιησούς/Iēsous and dropping the ‘o’ we are down to five letters for the Englisce Iesus before 1769. The Protestant King Jame Bible changed the ‘I’ to a ‘J’ from 1769 onward to Jesus.
The same Bible also says ‘Thou shalt not take the name of the LORD thy God in vain; for the LORD will not hold him guiltless that taketh his name in vain.’ [Exodus 20:7 KJV]
One also has to remember that there is NO ‘J’ in the Hebrew alphabet!
We see now that the Englisce name Jesus is a myth, with no reference to the name Jesus in any Germanic/Old Englisce biblical literature or text. The Saxons, Angles, Jutes (and other North Sea Germanics) from the early 7th-century when the Jutish king Æðelberht I (589-616) in 601 never knew or used the word, Jesus. They used the name Hæland’ Healer’ (Haelend in Middle Englisce (1154-1485)) until the term was annihilated by the Catholic Church, with Catholicism forcing their preferred term Iesus on the Englisce? Which did not affect the Cymry/Welsh for we still retained our four-letter for Jesus—Iesu, which by the way is still prevalent today?
Albert Barnes (1798-1870) was an American scholar, and theologian, and well known for his Bible commentary. He wrote in connexion that Joshua son of Nun was being called Jesus in two KJV verses (Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8).
The first English language book to make a clear distinction between ⟨i⟩ and ⟨j⟩ published in 1633. [English Grammar, Charles Butler, 1633] However, the first time it was spelt precisely (Jesus) this way, was in a secular environment—the phrase? “JESUS’ psalter.” First noted June of 1632 within an English legal brief prepared from the Court of the High Commission in London, England. It was in the infamous case of the Wicked Bible, aka Adulterous Bible or Sinners’ Bible. Where the publishers (Robert Barker and Martin Lucas, the royal printers in London) were fined £300 (£40,000+ today) for printing errors in the Bible, they published in 1631. One of the Errors was the Seventh Commandment— which read ‘Thou shalt commit adultery’ omitting the ‘Not.’
While religion did not catch on until 1769 when the name Jesus first recorded in the KJV Bible. So theoretically up to 2019, the name Jesus has only been recognised in the Englisce translated Bible/New Testament for 250 years.
Secularism began to use the tenth and last letter of the Englisce Alphabet before the religious powers that be took a further 136 years to catch up in the Englisce speaking world. Which is the usual norm for religion, which was always behind the times stunting humanity’s advancement and progress?